Why more deaths due to food-induced anaphylaxis in U.S. than elsewhere?
I was doing some surfing on the net today and ran across this article [url="http://www.allerg.qc.ca/peanutallergy.htm"]http://www.allerg.qc.ca/peanutallergy.htm[/url]
which states (towards the very beginning)
-Approximately 125 people die each year in the USA secondary to food-induced anaphylaxis. . . Anaphylaxis is recognized by cutaneous, respiratory, cardiovascular, and gatrointestinal signs and symptoms occuring singly or in combination. 80 (posted Aug. 12th, 1999)
-According to Statistics Canada, there were 6 deaths due to food anaphylaxis in 1997 and 8 in 1998 in Canada (posted Oct 29th, 2000)
-In the UK, according to Pumphrey (Clin Exp Allergy 2000 Aug;30(8);1144-50) from the 20 fatal reactions recorded each year, 5 are due to food.100 (posted Dec 6th, 2000)
What I'm wondering is why there is such a HUGE difference in the # of deaths related to food induced anaphylaxis? 125 a year in the US and only 5-8 a year in the UK and Canada??? Anyone have any ideas?
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